ashworth bm350 all exams latest 2015 winters [ exam 2 3 4 6 7 and 8 ]

Exam 2

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
__________ theories hold that certain actions or practices
are inherently right or wrong.

A. Consequentialist

B. Utilitarian

C. Deontological

D. Ethical

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, all of the following are true
about a person’s possible opposition to technological violations of natural
orders EXCEPT:

A. they are sometimes based on concern about long-term
consequences of intervention.

B. they can be based on religious beliefs.

C. they often stem from the longevity of a particular
practice.

D. they stem from a lack of education.

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
Ethical conflict over cases of cross-border and
multigenerational pollution is an example of a dispute relating to:

A. violations of established world orders.

B. violations of supposedly exceptionless principles.

C. distribution of science- or technology-related benefits.

D. exposure to significant harm without prior consent.

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
Sometimes the availability of technological advances causes
individuals to experience conflicts concerning their cherished values. Examples
of these conflicts discussed in your textbook include all of the following
EXCEPT:

A. the right to the pursuit of happiness.

B. death with dignity.

C. right to privacy.

D. human life preservation.

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
A large number of individual acts of negligible adverse
impact can result in substantial harm when considered in total. These outcomes
are referred to as:

A. public harms of aggregation.

B. conflicts between individual and social justice.

C. practitioner problems.

D. problems of “positive” rights.

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
_________ arise primarily inside the spheres of science and
technology.

A. Science- or technologically-precipitated value conflicts

B. Science- or technology-engendered “positive
rights”

C. Practitioner problems

D. Problems of public aggregation

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
Ethical problems related to __________ indicate that freedom
of scientific inquiry is not an absolute, unconditional, inviolable right.

A. distributive justices

B. whistle-blowing

C. consideration of long-term effects

D. fraud and misrepresentation

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
The text suggests that, ultimately, science- or
technology-related courses of action should be granted ethical approval only
if:

A. the expected benefits of an action outweigh its expected
costs.

B. projected outcomes yield at least as large a surplus of
beneficial consequences over harmful consequences as that of any available
alternative.

C. the action will make everyone better off, and yield the
greatest benefit to those currently in worst positions.

D. the projected harmful consequences are below a set
quantitative threshold and are greatly outweighed by their positive
counterparts.

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
Paul Alcorn maintains that the distinction between human and
animal manipulation of the natural environment to create artifacts is:

A. technology.

B. the ethical application of technology.

C. choice.

D. creativity and adaptation.

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
According to Paul Alcorn, technology is all of the following
EXCEPT:

A. a whole collection of methodology and artificial
constructs created by human beings to increase their probability of survival.

B. essentially a means of manipulating natural laws to our
benefit by constructing objects and methodology that increases our efficiency
and reduces waste in our lives.

C. a way to increase our standard of living by generating
more income.

D. is represented by artifacts that are manufactured for specific
use.

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
__________ is the resistance to changes in our culture that
extends to any technological device that may come along; because of this
resistance, the passage of time is necessary before a new technology will filter
throughout society.

A. Homeostasis

B. Technophobia

C. Psychological trauma

D. Complexity

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
Because of __________ some of the elements of a system
cannot be seen but can affect the operation of a system; this is important
because we must realize that what can’t be seen can still cause harm.

A. complexity

B. dynamics

C. intransparence

D. ignorance and mistaken hypotheses

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
According to Tim Healy, the Internet is an example of the
unanticipated consequences of technology because:

A. its impact on human behavior is predictable.

B. the ramifications of its influence are negligible.

C. its influence on all humans throughout the 21st century
is still unknown.

D. its use is not consistent throughout the world.

Question 14 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following does Healy conclude about the unanticipated
consequences of technology?

A. Life is not as complex as we like to think it is.

B. Uncertainty cannot be reduced because there is no way to
predict the future.

C. Only significant actions have unanticipated consequences.

D. Short-term and long-term values are often different and
contradictory.

Question 15 of 20 5.0
Points
About __________ of processed food that is produced in the
United States contains some genetically modified ingredients.

A. 62%

B. 33%

C. 75%

D. 44%

Question 16 of 20 5.0
Points
According to your textbook, the first genetically modified
food was produced:

A. 8,000 years ago.

B. in 1994.

C. in 2004.

D. in 2005.

Question 17 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following is NOT a risk of genetically modified
foods listed by your textbook?

A. Economic loss by small-scale farmers

B. Economic loss due to longer shelf life of some products

C. Inadvertent death in humans

D. Loss of public trust due to lack of labeling

Question 18 of 20 5.0
Points
Individuals might blow the whistle if they believe:

A. their company is breaking the law.

B. their company is involved in acts that are financially
profitable but morally wrong.

C. the actions of the company are potentially dangerous.

D. All of the above

Question 19 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Whistle-blowing often occurs when an individual believes
that decision making by a company or the government may be breaking the law.

B. Ethics codes are often too broad to capture the ethical
issues that confront companies.

C. Ethical behavior inevitably produces an economic cost to
a firm.

D. Whistle-blowers often come from senior positions, since
these are the people who have the most control over or have the most knowledge
about what is occurring within the corporation.

Question 20 of 20 5.0
Points
It is believed that the Challenger explosion could have been
prevented if:

A. the crew inside the Challenger had received more training
prior to the mission.

B. if the management team had ignored Boisjoly.

C. if the seal had leaked.

D. the Challenger was sent into space at warmer
temperatures.

Exam 3

Part 1 of 1 – 100.0
Points

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, there is a finite amount of time
that our civilization can exist based on which of the following?

A. Our civilization is based on non-renewable resources.

B. Our production of nuclear weapons will lead to mass
destruction.

C. At the present birth and death rates, our population will
outgrow its capacity to feed itself.

D. Plagues and diseases from non-industrialized countries
will kill the population.

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
Behind the United States, the world’s second largest emitter
of energy-related emissions is:

A. Mexico.

B. China.

C. The Soviet Union.

D. Europe.

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
In the year 2000, fossil fuels accounted for __________ of
energy use while new renewable sources accounted for only __________.

A. 50%; 12%

B. 70%; 5%

C. 77%; 2%

D. 97%; 3%

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following regions has the largest crude oil and
natural gas reserves?

A. North America

B. Central and South America

C. Europe

D. Middle East

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, the world adds about __________
of CO2 to the atmosphere from fossil fuel combustion each year, whereas
sustainable, stable amounts would be about __________.

A. 6 billion tons; 1 billion

B. 4 million tons; 1 billion

C. 8 billion tons; 3 billion

D. 4 billion tons; 6 billion

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
In 2006 the global oil prices reached slightly above
__________ a barrel.

A. $108

B. $98

C. $88

D. $78

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
The advantages of __________ as an energy source are that it
is abundant, versatile, and inexpensive compared with other energy sources.

A. coal

B. hydroelectric power

C. solar power

D. crude oil

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following fossil fuels can make a significant
contribution towards improving air quality if employed into the transportation
sector?

A. Crude Oil

B. Coal

C. Natural gas

D. Solar power

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
During the 1990s, wind power grew at a rate of __________
while solar energy grew at a rate of __________.

A. 36%; 27%

B. 26%; 17%

C. 17%; 26%

D. 27%; 36%

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
Nuclear energy provides about __________ of electricity in
the United States.

A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 19%

D. 25%

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
The world’s first large-scale nuclear power plant began
operations in:

A. 1947.

B. 1957.

C. 1967.

D. 1977.

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
The Yucca mountain nuclear waste repository (proposed in
1988 to be located in Nevada) will not offer permanent storage of nuclear waste
until at least:

A. 2017.

B. 2027.

C. 2037.

D. It began storing waste in 2007.

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
According to Michael Renner, the main objective of the war
in Iraq is:

A. to Liberate Iraq.

B. to maintain a cheaper supply of oil.

C. because President Bush wanted to punish President Saddam
Hussain.

D. for unidentified political advancements.

Question 14 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following power technologies has the highest
fuel (thermal) efficiency?

A. Fuel cell

B. Steam electric power plant

C. Nuclear electric power

D. Gas turbine electric power plant

Question 15 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, Iceland’s proposed hydrogen
economy is driven by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. recent developments in hydrogen fuel cells.

B. the movement to combat global climate change.

C. concerns over the price and supply of oil.

D. ethnic pride.

Question 16 of 20 5.0
Points
All of the following processes are used in biomass energy
technology EXCEPT:

A. radiation.

B. combustion.

C. gasification.

D. pyrolysis.

Question 17 of 20 5.0
Points
The technology that converts solar radiation into
electricity is called __________ energy.

A. fossil fuel

B. hydroelectric

C. nuclear

D. photo-voltaic

Question 18 of 20 5.0
Points
One advantage of hydroelectric power generation is:

A. the production of high-level chemical waste but no
greenhouse gases.

B. very high efficiency converting water to electrical
energy.

C. a wide range of sites for plant construction.

D. low construction costs.

Question 19 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of
hydroelectric power generation?

A. Dam construction causes loss of land suitable for
agriculture.

B. Dam construction prevents upstream migration of fish.

C. Downstream water flow becomes unpredictable and creates
extreme conditions.

D. Drought conditions can affect power production.

Question 20 of 20 5.0
Points
The biggest roadblock for electric cars is:

A. storing the electricity needed to run them.

B. the inefficiency of the electric motor.

C. the lack of usable prototypes.

D. low-volume production.

Exam 4

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
The study of ecology focuses specifically on:

A. the world that is all around us.

B. the world of living things in our planet.

C. the mutual relationship between organisms and the natural
world.

D. anything having to do with life.

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the text, by 2050, it is believed that
__________ of the earth’s species will become extinct if rain forest
destruction continues.

A. 6%

B. 14%

C. 25%

D. 50%

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
Wetlands are important for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT:

A. they provide local habitats for many species of animals
and plants.

B. one-third of endangered or threatened species in the U.S.
live in or are dependent on them.

C. they harbor the majority of the world’s flowering species.

D. they provide purification of local water supplies.

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
The percentage of China’s rivers that were severely polluted
in 2000 was __________; in 2002 it was __________.

A. 12%; 20%

B. 22%; 51%

C. 32%; 65%

D. 42%; 71%

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
The United States is responsible for __________ of the
world’s total energy consumption.

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 35%

D. 45%

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the article “The Grim Payback of
Greed” our level of consumerism:

A. is essentially a creation of the 20th century.

B. has declined in the West but is growing rapidly in
developing countries.

C. is highly correlated with reported levels of happiness.

D. is tied to our vast wealth, and to forces in the modern
world that encourage people to act on their consumption desires.

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
Indirectly, the “meat-eating quarter of humanity”
consumes nearly __________ of the world’s grain.

A. 15%

B. 20%

C. 40%

D. 50%

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the National Academy of Sciences, the Earth’s
surface temperature has risen about __________ in the past century.

A. 1%

B. 5%

C. 10%

D. 12%

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, an individual’s most important
decision that will effect the climate is:

A. the choice to unplug an extra freezer that is rarely
used.

B. looking for the Energy Star on new appliances.

C. selecting a fuel efficient automobile.

D. planting a tree.

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following was NOT a founding principle of the
Kyoto Protocol?

A. Scientific uncertainty must not be used to avoid
precautionary action.

B. Nations must have common but differentiated
responsibilities.

C. All nations must be included in the contract for it to
work.

D. Industrial nations must take the lead in addressing the
problem.

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
The article “Young at Risk” proposes that the
young of humans and animals are more vulnerable to chemical pollutant exposure
due to all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:

A. their brains are less sensitive than those of mature
humans and animals.

B. the young eat and breathe more for their body weights
than adults, so they get bigger proportional doses of external pollutants.

C. accumulated dioxin slows action to the immune system.

D. they will be getting about 50 times the exposure of an adult
during critical developmental stages.

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
The central problem in the international fishing industry
is:

A. “poaching” by foreign vessels in the
territorial waters of small nations.

B. laws restricting fishing in waters with the most abundant
fish populations.

C. the decline in fish populations due to over-fishing,
pollution, and habitat destruction.

D. a lack of enforcement of the Magnuson Fishery
Conservation and Management Act.

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
The reauthorization of the Magnuson Act in 1996 focused on
all of the following EXCEPT:

A. overfishing.

B. funding.

C. air quality.

D. habitat degradation.

Question 14 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the text, problems associated with the
Endangered Species Act include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. its use as a “last-chance” approach to saving
endangered species.

B. the creation of conflict between individual property
owners and government regulations concerning species.

C. a lack of public support for the Act.

D. ill-defined categories concerning the level of threat
posed by human activities to individual species.

Question 15 of 20 5.0
Points
Aside from lead, the two air pollutants most hazardous to
human health are:

A. sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide.

B. ozone and sulfur dioxide.

C. ozone and fine airborne particulates.

D. nitrous oxides and carbon monoxide.

Question 16 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following is an ingredient of acid rain?

A. Lead

B. Nitrogen dioxide

C. VOCs

D. Ozone

Question 17 of 20 5.0
Points
The process of searching for new natural medicines is
called:

A. drug testing.

B. bioprospecting.

C. FDA approval seeking.

D. curative compounding.

Question 18 of 20 5.0
Points
The economic value of the rain forest is based upon all of
the following EXCEPT:

A. plants that potentially contain the basis for new
medicines.

B. its value as a source of raw materials.

C. its value as a food source.

D. its value as a fossil fuel source.

Question 19 of 20 5.0
Points
In considering the origins of the top 150 drugs in the
United States, __________ origins account for the greates percentage of drugs.

A. synthetic

B. animal

C. plant

D. marine

Question 20 of 20 5.0
Points
The central problems mentioned in the case study concerning
the Love Canal include all of the following EXCEPT that:

A. developers and the school board knew about the chemical
dump, but proceeded anyway.

B. individual citizens are powerless to make a difference in
situations concerning waste dumping.

C. there are chemical dumps around the U.S. and the world
which are annually increasing. Improved safe dumping and developing/ building
standards need to be carefully created and monitored for safety of citizenry.

D. there are many heavily concentrated chemical dumps close
to the Niagara River and such leaching and damage to the environment similar to
Love Canal could easily again happen.

]

Exam 6

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
The company that put the “stealth” in the stealth
bomber was:

A. Lockheed Martin.

B. Grumman.

C. Northrup.

D. Boeing.

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
An institution which controls the shape, price, use, and
availability of a technology is called a:

A. sponsor.

B. Dominant Regulator.

C. Monopolistic Maker.

D. distributer.

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
If a company produces something and is able to dominate the
market as a result, that company would be called:

A. a sponsor.

B. a Dominant Client.

C. a Monopolistic Maker.

D. a manufacturer.

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
When was the tank first used in combat?

A. World War II

B. World War I

C. Korea

D. Vietnam

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
The name of the first tank was the:

A. Mark I (or M-1).

B. T-72.

C. M-60.

D. Nautilus.

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
The M1A1 Abrams tank was used with great success in:

A. World War II.

B. Vietnam.

C. The Cold War.

D. The Gulf War.

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
The next generation of armored vehicles will be called:

A. IEDs.

B. CIDs.

C. IAVs.

D. ADCs.

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
The next generation of stealth aircraft is the:

A. X-15.

B. A-10.

C. F-22.

D. B-52.

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
The project designed to clothe soldiers in order to fight
the wars of tomorrow is called:

A. Future Soldier 2025.

B. Situational Awareness.

C. Star Wars.

D. Land Warrior.

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
__________ was a herbicide used by the United States during
the Vietnam War to deprive Viet Cong and North Vietnamese troops of food,
shelter, and camoflage.

A. DDT

B. Mustard gas

C. Agent Orange

D. Anthrax

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the FDA antibiotic resistance occurs because:

A. antibiotics are administered to patients in smaller doses
than recommended by healthcare and federal organizations.

B. patients do not finish the entire bottle of medication
prescribed to them and the bacterial strain becomes stronger and more resistant
to antibiotics.

C. antibiotics are administered for bacterial infections,
which do not respond to antibiotics.

D. the drug companies are not making the drugs strong enough
due to previous lawsuits.

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
Some turkey and chicken products contain __________ which
increases the risk of human infection from bacteria that medications on the
market will not easily kill. It is the most common bacterial cause of diarrhea
illness in the United States.

A. campylobacter

B. monobacter

C. cylobacter

D. bactercilo

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
The FDA states that about __________ percent of the bacteria
that cause infections in hospitals are resistant to at least one of the drugs
most commonly used to treat infections.

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 80%

Question 14 of 20 5.0
Points
Bayer was an early proponent of amphetamines and brought the
world two blockbuster commercial winners: aspirin and:

A. morphine.

B. heroin.

C. cocaine.

D. diabetic drugs.

Question 15 of 20 5.0
Points
In the mid-1970s, pharmaceutical companies saw that the
solution to the uncertainty of an ill clientele was to:

A. develop drugs for well people, who not only remain
employed but never get “better.”

B. develop stronger drugs for sick people because the market
is sympathetic towards sick people.

C. create safer drugs because too many people were suing the
pharmaceutical companies.

D. develop weaker drugs so that people would remain ill and
continue to take the drugs.

Question 16 of 20 5.0
Points
Originally __________ were defined as drugs advertised only
to doctors and pharmacists, but not to potential patients.

A. all drugs

B. amphetamines

C. “ethical drugs”

D. barbiturates

Question 17 of 20 5.0
Points
Drugs that treat diseases such as Alzheimer’s, depression,
schizophrenia, and aging were tested by Cold Spring Harbor Laboratories on:

A. fruit flies.

B. guinia pigs.

C. rabbits.

D. monkies.

Question 18 of 20 5.0
Points
The asymptomatic period of HIV may last __________ years or
longer in a country like the United States, though the infection can progress
to AIDS in as little as __________ years in a country like Zimbabwe or India,
where the percentage of people who can get full treatment and care is much
smaller.

A. 10; 2 to 3

B. 7; 1 to 2

C. 9; 3 to 4

D. 8; 3 to 5

Question 19 of 20 5.0
Points
About __________ of HIV transmission worldwide is through
unprotected sex.

A. 56%

B. 64%

C. 75%

D. 33%

Question 20 of 20 5.0
Points
The recent upsurge in medical costs, combined with advances
in technology, is now making __________ a reality.

A. neural “hardwiring”

B. telemedicine

C. gene therapy

D. genetic testing

Exam 7

Part 1 of 1 – 100.0
Points

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, __________ of the world’s
population resides in developing countries.

A. 40%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 80%

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
The term __________ was supposed to represent communist
countries of Eastern Europe, but the term never caught on.

A. First World

B. Second World

C. Fourth World

D. Soviet Bloc

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
In 1952, who coined the phrase “Third World”?

A. Albert Einstein

B. Alfred Sauvey

C. Richard Nixon

D. John Kennedy

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
Which of the following was NOT a demand of the “Charter
of Economic Rights and Duties of States,” passed by the U.N. General
Assembly in 1974?

A. Transnational corporations must be regulated

B. Economic aid from rich to poor countries should be increased

C. Technology should be transferred from rich to poor

D. Natural resources must remain in developing countries

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
The term LLDC represents __________ countries.

A. first world

B. second world

C. least developed

D. technologically advanced

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger, achieve universal
primary education, promote gender equality and empower women, and reduce child
mortality are among the self-stated goals of the:

A. WTO.

B. MDG.

C. UNDP.

D. World Bank.

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
In the article “Income Gap Widens,” Hal Kane
suggests that uneven income distribution influences all of the following
EXCEPT:

A. migration.

B. crime rates.

C. the growth of cities.

D. birth rates.

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
The single largest environmental concern in Bangladesh is:

A. clean drinking water.

B. clean air.

C. lack of good soil for crop production.

D. acid rain from nearby countries.

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
According to your textbook, scientists are discovering that
__________ is(are) currently a significant environmental problem especially in
the coutries of Bangladesh, India, China, and other Asian countries.

A. laser technologies

B. cyclones

C. underground earthquakes

D. arsenic poisioning

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
According to your textbook, the reason that China has
produced more grain every year than the United States has produced (since 1986)
is:

A. China has more people who can grow grain.

B. China wants to be able to feed more people than the U.S.
does.

C. China has more irrigated land available for grain
production than the U.S. does.

D. the U.S. is more concerned about technology than about
growing grain.

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
__________ is one of the few major indicators for which the
ratio of production between the U.S. and China reflects the ratio of population
size.

A. Bicycle production

B. Meat consumption

C. Automobile production

D. Fertilizer use

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
In Pakistan, recycling has been implemented for __________
reasons.

A. environmental

B. health

C. economic

D. aesthetic

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
Approximately __________ of Pakistan’s demand for glass is
met through recycling locally generated glass waste.

A. 30%

B. 50%

C. 80%

D. 90%

Question 14 of 20 5.0
Points
In Pakistan about __________ of reusable waste is recycled.

A. 40-50%

B. 50-60%

C. 60-70%

D. 70-80%

Question 15 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the textbook, in 2004 in Equador the Internet
was accessible to __________ of every 100 people.

A. 4

B. 10

C. 25

D. 40

Question 16 of 20 5.0
Points
According to the UNDP statistics (2004) the per capita
income of Ecuador was about __________ per year.

A. $2,500

B. $3,500

C. $4,500

D. $5,500

Question 17 of 20 5.0
Points
All of the following are true about distance learning
EXCEPT:

A. can help narrow the techno-economic gap between the
developed and developing nations.

B. is affordable only in First World countries that have
highly advanced technologies.

C. overcomes geographic barriers to allow face-to-face
communication between students and teachers.

D. offers a unique approach to promote literacy and enhance
higher education in a cost effective way.

Question 18 of 20 5.0
Points
On April 6, 1994 the presidents of Rwanda and Burundi died
in a plane crash. Both were members of the __________ ethnic group.

A. Masai

B. Tutsi

C. Hutu

D. Mumbasa

Question 19 of 20 5.0
Points
All of the following factors led to the 1994 genocide in
Rwanda EXCEPT:

A. population growth.

B. deforestation.

C. hunger.

D. natural gas.

Question 20 of 20 5.0
Points
Rwanda has been heavily dependent on __________ for energy
needs.

A. biomass

B. coal

C. natural gas

D. petroleum

Exam 8

Question 1 of 20 5.0
Points
In his section on science and technology when writing about
the Cray computer, Norman Myers defines the term “gigaflop” as:

A. what happens when the computer calculates too fast and
crashes.

B. a type of nanotechnology.

C. one billion calculations every second.

D. a measure of the computer’s memory.

Question 2 of 20 5.0
Points
Norman Meyers makes which of the following health
predictions?

A. Due to the development of technology, people will not
have to exercise or diet in the future.

B. Child mortality will increase throughout the world in the
future.

C. Tobacco companies will peddle cigarettes to developing
countries and increase the health-related problems in these countries.

D. Healthcare will become the responsibility of the
government rather than an individual responsibility.

Question 3 of 20 5.0
Points
When Stuart Newman and Jeremy Rifkin applied for a patent of
genetically engineered life forms, their purpose in doing so was to:

A. allow them to receive all financial benefits from genetic
engineering.

B. prevent discrimination in the use of the technology.

C. make sure that only scientists they approved of ethically
could use the technology.

D. prevent or delay the use of such technology to better
control and regulate its use and all ow the public more time to develop
policies on its use.

Question 4 of 20 5.0
Points
With the aid of __________, computers soon will build
information and conclusions and automatically coordinate applications and
outputs.

A. optical networks

B. artificial intelligence

C. the Internet

D. intelligent agents

Question 5 of 20 5.0
Points
Nano-technology:

A. is microscopic technology that is the size of atoms and
molecules which is engineered to function within the structure of matter at
that level.

B. is a connecting telecommunications technology that allows
for specialized repair and clarity of transmissions.

C. is a gene therapy that scans defective genes and isolates
and identifies them.

D. is a new medical surgical techniques which utilizes radio
waves and lasers.

Question 6 of 20 5.0
Points
In the future technology will change workforce dynamics most
substantially for:

A. white-collar workers.

B. executive managers.

C. mid-level “technicians.”

D. service workers.

Question 7 of 20 5.0
Points
Key developments that have revolutionized light-wave
communications are advances in:

A. oceanic fiberoptics.

B. nanotechnology.

C. molecular design.

D. rare-earth optical amplifiers.

Question 8 of 20 5.0
Points
In 1997, the Library of Congress held 17,402,100 books. If
we assume that each book has 300 pages with 450 words per page, this totals
about 135,000 words per book or 2.35 trillion words. If we further assume that
each word averages about 7 letters, the information can be digitized using
ASCII code, in which each letter represents 7 bits. Therefore, all of the
holdings of the Library of Congress would amount to 115.11 trillion bits of
information. How long it would take to transmit the entire collection of the
Library of Congress using an optical fiber that has the transmission speed of
100 trillion bits per second?

A. 1.15 seconds

B. 11.5 seconds

C. 115.11 seconds

D. 1151.1 seconds

Question 9 of 20 5.0
Points
According to Kahn, Africa has more than 13% of the owrl’d
population, but it accounts for only __________ of the the world’s total
international Internet capacity.

A. 0.02%

B. 0.2%

C. 2.0%

D. 20%

Question 10 of 20 5.0
Points
The brain’s ability to grow and change as it learns and
experiences its environment is known as:

A. neurotransmission.

B. neurology.

C. neuroeducation.

D. neuroplasticity.

Question 11 of 20 5.0
Points
The cells that specialize in communication and exchange
signals with each other and link sense organs, muscles, and glands to the brain
are called:

A. soma cells.

B. dendrites.

C. neurons.

D. axons.

Question 12 of 20 5.0
Points
The IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) addressing scheme
(uses a 32-bit unique address to identify a device connected to the Internet),
developed in the 1980s, yields around __________ billion possible computer
addresses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question 13 of 20 5.0
Points
Based on brain research, Kahn suggests that to encourage
neural branching, educators should use all of the following teaching strategies
EXCEPT:

A. application of different symbols.

B. analogy.

C. rote memorization.

D. hypothetical thinking.

Question 14 of 20 5.0

 

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